Q01Dental Diseases
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Module 05
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Q02Dental Diseases
Proposed aetiology of abfraction:
Q03Dental Diseases
Management includes:
Q04Premalignant Disorders
Most common site of actinic cheilitis:
Q05Premalignant Disorders
Definitive treatment for widespread dysplastic actinic cheilitis:
Q06Premalignant Disorders
Hallmark histological feature:
Q07Odontogenic Tumors
AOT is known as:
Q08Odontogenic Tumors
Most common site of AOT:
Q09Odontogenic Tumors
Key differentiator from dentigerous cyst:
Q10Odontogenic Tumors
Histologic hallmark of AOT:
Q11Odontogenic Tumors
Treatment of choice:
Q12Odontogenic Tumors
Recurrence rate:
Q13Odontogenic Tumors
Age group most affected:
Q14Odontogenic Tumors
Sex predilection:
Q15Odontogenic Tumors
Most common variant of AOT:
Q16Odontogenic Tumors
AOT origin is from:
Q17Odontogenic Tumors
Which is TRUE?
Q18Odontogenic Tumors
Radiographic feature that suggests AOT over dentigerous cyst:
Q19Odontogenic Tumors
Ki-67 index in AOT is:
Q20Odontogenic Tumors
Ameloblast-like palisading is:
Q21Odontogenic Tumors
Peripheral AOT presents as:
Q22Odontogenic Tumors
Follicular AOT is associated with:
Q23Odontogenic Tumors
Which is the least common variant?
Q24Odontogenic Tumors
AOT is more common in:
Q25Odontogenic Tumors
Which tooth is most often associated?
Q26Odontogenic Tumors
Best imaging modality for AOT is:
Q27Odontogenic Tumors
Most common site of ameloblastoma:
Q28Developmental Disorders
Which type of AI results in enamel that chips away easily after eruption?
Q29Developmental Disorders
AMELX mutation causes which inheritance pattern?
Q30Developmental Disorders
Which condition affects ONLY dentin?
Q31Non-odontogenic Cysts
ABC is currently classified as:
Q32Non-odontogenic Cysts
USP6 gene is located on chromosome:
Q33Non-odontogenic Cysts
MRI hallmark of ABC is:
Q34Non-odontogenic Cysts
Most common site in the jaws:
Q35Non-odontogenic Cysts
Peak age of presentation:
Q36Non-odontogenic Cysts
Blood-filled cavernous spaces are lined by:
Q37Non-odontogenic Cysts
Secondary ABC most often arises within:
Q38Non-odontogenic Cysts
USP6 fusion is typically seen in:
Q39Non-odontogenic Cysts
Standard surgical treatment is:
Q40Non-odontogenic Cysts
Recurrence after simple curettage is approximately:
Q41Non-odontogenic Cysts
Which adjuvant is NOT commonly used?
Q42Non-odontogenic Cysts
Denosumab acts by inhibiting:
Q43Non-odontogenic Cysts
Selective arterial embolisation is used to:
Q44Non-odontogenic Cysts
The most important differential to exclude on histology is:
Q45Non-odontogenic Cysts
Cortical appearance on imaging is described as:
Q46Non-odontogenic Cysts
Which is NOT a feature of ABC?
Q47Non-odontogenic Cysts
Radiotherapy is now avoided because of:
Q48Non-odontogenic Cysts
Sclerotherapy uses:
Q49Non-odontogenic Cysts
Sex predilection is:
Q50Non-odontogenic Cysts
Solid variant of ABC represents:
Q51Dental Diseases
Attrition is caused by:
Q52Dental Diseases
Characteristic feature of attrition:
Q53Dental Diseases
Primary management of bruxism-related attrition:
Q54Ulcerative Diseases
HLA association with Behçet disease:
Q55Ulcerative Diseases
Pathergy test involves:
Q56Ulcerative Diseases
Eye complication of Behçet:
Q57Malignant Tumors
Characteristic translocation:
Q58Malignant Tumors
'Starry-sky' cells are:
Q59Malignant Tumors
Ki-67 in BL:
Q60Fibro-osseous Lesions
Key differentiator from periapical pathology:
Q61Fibro-osseous Lesions
Most common patient profile:
Q62Fibro-osseous Lesions
Treatment of asymptomatic COD:
Q63Odontogenic Tumors
Cementoblastoma is a true neoplasm of:
Q64Odontogenic Tumors
Most common site:
Q65Odontogenic Tumors
Radiographic hallmark:
Q66Odontogenic Tumors
Vitality of associated tooth is:
Q67Odontogenic Tumors
Treatment of choice:
Q68Odontogenic Tumors
Which of the following is a distinguishing symptom?
Q69Odontogenic Tumors
Recurrence rate after complete removal:
Q70Odontogenic Tumors
Histologic feature includes:
Q71Odontogenic Tumors
Radiolucent halo represents:
Q72Odontogenic Tumors
Cementoblastoma is classified by WHO as:
Q73Odontogenic Tumors
Differential of cementoblastoma includes all EXCEPT:
Q74Odontogenic Tumors
Sex predilection:
Q75Odontogenic Tumors
Age at presentation:
Q76Odontogenic Tumors
Which IHC marker is positive?
Q77Odontogenic Tumors
Cementoblastoma differs from hypercementosis by:
Q78Odontogenic Tumors
Which of the following is TRUE?
Q79Odontogenic Tumors
Recurrence rate if tumour removed without tooth:
Q80Odontogenic Tumors
Cementoblastoma is more common in:
Q81Odontogenic Tumors
Best imaging modality:
Q82Odontogenic Tumors
Which is TRUE about pain?
Q83Maxillofacial Infections
Most common causative organism:
Q84Maxillofacial Infections
Sulphur granules represent:
Q85Maxillofacial Infections
First-line antibiotic:
Q86Maxillofacial Infections
Definitive treatment:
Q87Maxillofacial Infections
Clindamycin adjunct role:
Q88Maxillofacial Infections
Most feared complication of cervicofacial NF:
Q89Malignant Tumors
Preferred treatment:
Q90Malignant Tumors
Typical calcification pattern:
Q91Malignant Tumors
Most common jaw site:
Q92Maxillofacial Surgery
Optimal age for primary palate repair:
Q93Maxillofacial Surgery
Alveolar bone grafting is ideally performed:
Q94Maxillofacial Surgery
'Rule of 10s' applies to timing of:
Q95Developmental Disorders
Ideal timing for cleft lip repair:
Q96Developmental Disorders
Most common cleft type:
Q97Developmental Disorders
IRF6 mutation is associated with:
Q98Developmental Disorders
The gene most commonly implicated in cleidocranial dysplasia is:
Q99TMJ Disorders
Investigation to determine activity:
Q100TMJ Disorders
Chin deviates AWAY from affected side in:
Q101TMJ Disorders
Treatment of active CH:
Q102Maxillofacial Infections
Danger space extends to:
Q103Maxillofacial Infections
Trismus most suggests involvement of:
Q104Maxillofacial Infections
First priority:
Q105Dental Diseases
Critical pH for enamel demineralisation is:
Q106Dental Diseases
Perimylolysis refers to erosion from:
Q107Dental Diseases
Characteristic distribution of intrinsic erosion:
Q108Dental Diseases
Why avoid brushing immediately after acid exposure?
Q109Maxillofacial Surgery
Concept of osseointegration was introduced by:
Q110Maxillofacial Surgery
Safe distance from inferior alveolar nerve:
Q111Maxillofacial Surgery
Minimum insertion torque for immediate loading:
Q112Odontogenic Cysts
Attachment of dentigerous cyst is at:
Q113Developmental Disorders
Which gene is mutated in isolated DI?
Q114Developmental Disorders
DI Type I is associated with:
Q115Developmental Disorders
Radiographic hallmark of DI:
Q116Trauma
Best storage medium for avulsed tooth:
Q117Trauma
Splint duration for avulsion:
Q118Trauma
Optimal extra-alveolar time:
Q119Maxillofacial Surgery
Standard activation rate:
Q120Maxillofacial Surgery
Consolidation phase relative to activation:
Q121Maxillofacial Surgery
Principle originally described by:
Q122Soft Tissue Lesions
Epulis fissuratum is caused by:
Q123Soft Tissue Lesions
Treatment includes:
Q124Soft Tissue Lesions
Histology shows:
Q125Vesiculobullous Diseases
Most common trigger for recurrent EM:
Q126Vesiculobullous Diseases
Characteristic skin lesion:
Q127Vesiculobullous Diseases
Prevention of HSV-associated recurrent EM:
Q128Red Lesions
Newton's Type II denture stomatitis is:
Q129Red Lesions
Antibiotic sore mouth is a form of:
Q130Red Lesions
Kissing lesion of the palate mirrors:
Q131Red Lesions
First-line treatment is:
Q132Red Lesions
Recurrent erythematous candidiasis in a young adult should prompt screening for:
Q133Red Lesions
Erythroplakia most commonly shows on biopsy:
Q134Red Lesions
Most common site of erythroplakia:
Q135Red Lesions
Compared to leukoplakia, erythroplakia has:
Q136Red Lesions
Management of persistent erythroplakia is:
Q137Red Lesions
Erythroplakia is red because of:
Q138Red Lesions
Histological hallmark of geographic tongue is:
Q139Red Lesions
Geographic tongue is associated with:
Q140Red Lesions
Malignant potential is:
Q141Red Lesions
Best confirmation of diagnosis is:
Q142Red Lesions
Recommended treatment for asymptomatic geographic tongue:
Q143Benign Tumors
First-line medical treatment:
Q144Benign Tumors
IHC marker of infantile haemangioma:
Q145Benign Tumors
Involution completes in most children by age:
Q146Developmental Disorders
HFM results from defects in which branchial arches?
Q147Developmental Disorders
Goldenhar syndrome includes HFM plus:
Q148Developmental Disorders
Pruzansky Grade III mandible:
Q149Oral Cancer
Most common HPV type in OPSCC:
Q150Oral Cancer
IHC surrogate marker for HPV:
Q151Oral Cancer
Prognosis of HPV+ compared with HPV− OPSCC:
Q152Malignant Tumors
Causative virus:
Q153Malignant Tumors
Most common oral site:
Q154Malignant Tumors
Diagnostic IHC marker:
Q155Odontogenic Cysts
Vitality of adjacent tooth in LPC is:
Q156Odontogenic Cysts
Most common site is:
Q157Odontogenic Cysts
Characteristic histological feature:
Q158Odontogenic Cysts
Multilocular variant of LPC is called:
Q159Odontogenic Cysts
Recurrence in botryoid variant:
Q160Odontogenic Cysts
LPC arises from:
Q161Odontogenic Cysts
Treatment of choice:
Q162Odontogenic Cysts
Clear cells stain with:
Q163Odontogenic Cysts
Age group most commonly affected:
Q164Odontogenic Cysts
LPC lining is typically:
Q165Odontogenic Cysts
Radiographically LPC appears as:
Q166Odontogenic Cysts
Which is the soft-tissue counterpart of LPC?
Q167Odontogenic Cysts
Which is FALSE about LPC?
Q168Odontogenic Cysts
Best imaging for surgical planning:
Q169Odontogenic Cysts
Which cyst has the highest recurrence rate among developmental odontogenic cysts?
Q170Odontogenic Cysts
Ki-67 in LPC is:
Q171Odontogenic Cysts
Which mimics LPC clinically?
Q172Odontogenic Cysts
Aspirate of LPC typically shows:
Q173Odontogenic Cysts
Complication of enucleation:
Q174Odontogenic Cysts
Follow-up for botryoid variant:
Q175Trauma
Le Fort III is also called:
Q176Trauma
CSF rhinorrhoea test:
Q177Trauma
Le Fort I passes:
Q178White Lesions
Pathognomonic sign of leukoedema is:
Q179White Lesions
Most affected site is:
Q180White Lesions
Histopathology shows:
Q181White Lesions
Population with highest prevalence:
Q182White Lesions
Treatment of leukoedema is:
Q183White Lesions
Highest malignant transformation is seen in:
Q184White Lesions
Leukoplakia is defined as:
Q185White Lesions
The best biopsy site in a heterogeneous leukoplakia is:
Q186White Lesions
Basement membrane integrity is:
Q187White Lesions
PVL classically affects:
Q188White Lesions
First step in management of leukoplakia is:
Q189White Lesions
WHO 2022 recommends dysplasia grading as:
Q190White Lesions
Which is NOT a feature of epithelial dysplasia?
Q191Red Lesions
MRG is located:
Q192Red Lesions
Currently accepted aetiology is:
Q193Red Lesions
Kissing lesion refers to erythema on the:
Q194Red Lesions
Histological pitfall is:
Q195Red Lesions
First-line treatment:
Q196Bone Diseases
Duration of exposed bone required for MRONJ diagnosis:
Q197Bone Diseases
Highest-risk drug:
Q198Bone Diseases
Best preventive strategy:
Q199Soft Tissue Lesions
Most common site for mucocele:
Q200Soft Tissue Lesions
Extravasation mucocele is:
Q201Soft Tissue Lesions
To prevent recurrence, remove:
Q202Salivary Gland Disorders
Most common malignant salivary gland tumour:
Q203Salivary Gland Disorders
Characteristic gene fusion:
Q204Salivary Gland Disorders
Commonest intraoral site:
Q205Vesiculobullous Diseases
MMP shows on DIF:
Q206Vesiculobullous Diseases
Most concerning complication of MMP:
Q207Vesiculobullous Diseases
Histology shows:
Q208Salivary Gland Disorders
Causative organism:
Q209Salivary Gland Disorders
Post-pubertal male complication:
Q210Salivary Gland Disorders
Prevention:
Q211Non-odontogenic Cysts
Nasolabial cyst is:
Q212Non-odontogenic Cysts
The currently favoured theory of origin is:
Q213Non-odontogenic Cysts
Most common lining is:
Q214Non-odontogenic Cysts
Sex predilection is:
Q215Non-odontogenic Cysts
Bilateral occurrence is seen in:
Q216Non-odontogenic Cysts
Best imaging modality is:
Q217Non-odontogenic Cysts
Classical radiographic finding is:
Q218Non-odontogenic Cysts
Treatment of choice is:
Q219Non-odontogenic Cysts
A minimally invasive alternative is:
Q220Non-odontogenic Cysts
Recurrence rate after complete excision:
Q221Non-odontogenic Cysts
Klestadt cyst is another name for:
Q222Non-odontogenic Cysts
Adjacent teeth are:
Q223Non-odontogenic Cysts
Malignant transformation is:
Q224Non-odontogenic Cysts
Klestadt technique uses:
Q225Non-odontogenic Cysts
Goblet cells in the lining secrete:
Q226Non-odontogenic Cysts
Bimanual palpation lifts:
Q227Non-odontogenic Cysts
Which is NOT a differential?
Q228Non-odontogenic Cysts
Most commonly presents in the:
Q229Non-odontogenic Cysts
Nasal obstruction results from:
Q230Non-odontogenic Cysts
Which population has slightly higher incidence?
Q231Non-odontogenic Cysts
Nasopalatine duct cyst arises from:
Q232Non-odontogenic Cysts
Classic radiographic appearance is:
Q233Non-odontogenic Cysts
Minimum size suggesting pathology over normal foramen:
Q234Non-odontogenic Cysts
Vitality of adjacent central incisors is:
Q235Non-odontogenic Cysts
Pathognomonic histological feature is:
Q236Non-odontogenic Cysts
Most common lining epithelium is:
Q237Non-odontogenic Cysts
Treatment of choice is:
Q238Non-odontogenic Cysts
Recurrence after enucleation is:
Q239Non-odontogenic Cysts
Expected post-op complication is:
Q240Non-odontogenic Cysts
Male-to-female ratio is approximately:
Q241Non-odontogenic Cysts
Most common decade of presentation:
Q242Non-odontogenic Cysts
Which is NOT a differential?
Q243Non-odontogenic Cysts
Nasopalatine cyst represents what % of non-odontogenic cysts?
Q244Non-odontogenic Cysts
Imaging modality of choice for pre-surgical planning:
Q245Non-odontogenic Cysts
Cyst of the incisive papilla is the:
Q246Non-odontogenic Cysts
Discharge from fistulised cyst is typically:
Q247Non-odontogenic Cysts
Aspiration fluid contains:
Q248Non-odontogenic Cysts
Best surgical approach for palatally expanded cyst:
Q249Non-odontogenic Cysts
Prognosis after surgery is:
Q250Non-odontogenic Cysts
Malignant transformation is:
Q251Odontogenic Cysts
The current (WHO 2022) classification of OKC is:
Q252Odontogenic Cysts
Gene mutated in OKC and Gorlin syndrome:
Q253Odontogenic Cysts
OKC arises from:
Q254Odontogenic Cysts
Aspirate protein content in OKC:
Q255Odontogenic Cysts
Characteristic histological feature:
Q256Odontogenic Cysts
Most common site:
Q257Odontogenic Cysts
Recurrence after enucleation alone is:
Q258Odontogenic Cysts
Original Carnoy's solution contains all EXCEPT:
Q259Odontogenic Cysts
Which is NOT a feature of Gorlin–Goltz syndrome?
Q260Odontogenic Cysts
Ki-67 index in OKC is typically:
Q261Odontogenic Cysts
Best imaging for surgical planning:
Q262Odontogenic Cysts
Vismodegib acts on:
Q263Odontogenic Cysts
Corrugated luminal surface is due to:
Q264Odontogenic Cysts
Which growth pattern is characteristic?
Q265Odontogenic Cysts
OKC is often mistaken for which cyst radiographically?
Q266Odontogenic Cysts
Enucleation + peripheral ostectomy reduces recurrence to:
Q267Odontogenic Cysts
Which of the following aspirates is characteristic of OKC?
Q268Odontogenic Cysts
Which IHC is positive in OKC basal cells?
Q269Odontogenic Cysts
Modified Carnoy's is applied for:
Q270Odontogenic Cysts
Which of the following favours resection over enucleation?
Q271Odontogenic Tumors
Odontogenic myxoma originates from:
Q272Odontogenic Tumors
Classic radiographic pattern:
Q273Odontogenic Tumors
Most common site:
Q274Odontogenic Tumors
Recurrence after curettage:
Q275Odontogenic Tumors
Histology shows:
Q276Odontogenic Tumors
Aspiration typically yields:
Q277Odontogenic Tumors
MRI signal of myxoid stroma:
Q278Odontogenic Tumors
Which is TRUE?
Q279Odontogenic Tumors
Age group most affected:
Q280Odontogenic Tumors
Sex predilection:
Q281Odontogenic Tumors
Which is the BEST treatment for a 4 cm mandibular myxoma?
Q282Odontogenic Tumors
Which is the FIRST step before biopsy of a multilocular radiolucency?
Q283Odontogenic Tumors
IHC most consistently positive:
Q284Odontogenic Tumors
Radiographic differential includes all EXCEPT:
Q285Odontogenic Tumors
Ki-67 index in myxoma is:
Q286Odontogenic Tumors
Myxofibroma differs from myxoma by:
Q287Odontogenic Tumors
Peripheral ostectomy is advised because:
Q288Odontogenic Tumors
Which reconstruction is standard for continuity defect?
Q289Odontogenic Tumors
Recurrence after adequate resection:
Q290Odontogenic Tumors
Which of the following is a warning sign?
Q291Odontogenic Tumors
Most common odontogenic tumour is:
Q292Odontogenic Tumors
Compound odontoma is most commonly seen in:
Q293Odontogenic Tumors
Complex odontoma is most commonly seen in:
Q294Odontogenic Tumors
Odontoma is:
Q295Odontogenic Tumors
Multiple odontomas suggest:
Q296Odontogenic Tumors
Gene mutated in Gardner syndrome:
Q297Odontogenic Tumors
Recurrence rate of odontoma:
Q298Odontogenic Tumors
Radiographically odontoma is denser than:
Q299Odontogenic Tumors
Odontoma is composed of all EXCEPT:
Q300Odontogenic Tumors
Peak age for odontoma:
Q301Odontogenic Tumors
Radiographic halo represents:
Q302Odontogenic Tumors
Which of the following is NOT a component of Gardner syndrome?
Q303Odontogenic Tumors
Treatment of an odontoma associated with an impacted permanent tooth is:
Q304Odontogenic Tumors
Compound odontoma resembles:
Q305Odontogenic Tumors
Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma differs from odontoma by:
Q306Odontogenic Tumors
Erupted odontoma is:
Q307Odontogenic Tumors
Which imaging is best pre-op?
Q308Odontogenic Tumors
Odontoma is classified by WHO as:
Q309Odontogenic Tumors
Histology of complex odontoma shows:
Q310Odontogenic Tumors
Which of the following is TRUE about odontoma?
Q311White Lesions
Most common causative organism is:
Q312White Lesions
Which type of candidiasis does NOT wipe off?
Q313White Lesions
Newton's classification is used for:
Q314White Lesions
First-line topical antifungal is:
Q315White Lesions
Best stain to visualise hyphae in tissue:
Q316White Lesions
Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis typically occurs on:
Q317White Lesions
Median rhomboid glossitis is a form of:
Q318White Lesions
Germ tube test identifies:
Q319White Lesions
Pathognomonic clinical feature of reticular OLP is:
Q320White Lesions
The predominant infiltrating cell in OLP is:
Q321White Lesions
Direct IF in OLP shows:
Q322White Lesions
First-line treatment for symptomatic OLP is:
Q323White Lesions
Highest malignant risk is in which type:
Q324White Lesions
Skin lesions of lichen planus are typically:
Q325White Lesions
OLP is bilaterally symmetric because:
Q326White Lesions
Civatte bodies are:
Q327Benign Tumors
Commonest oral site:
Q328Benign Tumors
Treatment:
Q329Benign Tumors
MRI signal on T1:
Q330Systemic Diseases
Best day to schedule dental treatment for haemodialysis patient:
Q331Systemic Diseases
Radiographic hallmark of renal osteodystrophy:
Q332Systemic Diseases
Analgesic to AVOID:
Q333Systemic Diseases
Cause of oral hairy leukoplakia:
Q334Systemic Diseases
Kaposi sarcoma is associated with:
Q335Systemic Diseases
OHL characteristically:
Q336Systemic Diseases
Leukaemia subtype most often causing gingival enlargement:
Q337Systemic Diseases
Minimum platelet count for safe extraction:
Q338Systemic Diseases
Chloroma is a:
Q339Pigmented Lesions
Most common site for oral melanoma:
Q340Pigmented Lesions
IHC marker for melanoma:
Q341Pigmented Lesions
5-year survival for oral melanoma:
Q342Pigmented Lesions
Oral melanotic macule shows:
Q343Pigmented Lesions
Most common site for oral melanotic macule:
Q344Pigmented Lesions
Management:
Q345Pigmented Lesions
Most common type of oral nevus:
Q346Pigmented Lesions
Blue nevus is characterised by:
Q347Pigmented Lesions
Most common site for oral nevus:
Q348Benign Tumors
Most common oral site:
Q349Benign Tumors
Verocay bodies are found in:
Q350Benign Tumors
IHC marker:
Q351Premalignant Disorders
Principal aetiological agent of OSMF:
Q352Ulcerative Diseases
Most common site for oral TB:
Q353Ulcerative Diseases
Characteristic histology of TB:
Q354Ulcerative Diseases
Oral TB is usually:
Q355Fibro-osseous Lesions
Key feature separating OF from FD:
Q356Fibro-osseous Lesions
Treatment of choice:
Q357Fibro-osseous Lesions
Most aggressive variant:
Q358Bone Diseases
Vincent sign refers to:
Q359Bone Diseases
Radiographic hallmark of chronic osteomyelitis:
Q360Bone Diseases
Onion-skin periosteal reaction:
Q361Bone Diseases
Classic biochemical finding:
Q362Bone Diseases
First-line pharmacotherapy:
Q363Bone Diseases
Malignant transformation to:
Q364Dental Diseases
Most important initial treatment for periapical abscess:
Q365Dental Diseases
A 'gum boil' (parulis) indicates:
Q366Dental Diseases
Radiograph of acute periapical abscess may show:
Q367Soft Tissue Lesions
PGCG arises from:
Q368Soft Tissue Lesions
Systemic condition to exclude with recurrent PGCG:
Q369Soft Tissue Lesions
Treatment of PGCG:
Q370Salivary Gland Disorders
Commonest site:
Q371Salivary Gland Disorders
Recommended operation for parotid PA:
Q372Salivary Gland Disorders
Feature suggesting carcinoma ex PA:
Q373Vesiculobullous Diseases
PHGS affects:
Q374Vesiculobullous Diseases
Histological feature:
Q375Vesiculobullous Diseases
Aciclovir is most effective if started within:
Q376Dental Diseases
Lingering pain to cold for >10 seconds indicates:
Q377Dental Diseases
First-line treatment for irreversible pulpitis:
Q378Dental Diseases
EPT negative with periapical radiolucency suggests:
Q379Odontogenic Cysts
The most common odontogenic cyst is:
Q380Odontogenic Cysts
Radicular cyst arises from:
Q381Odontogenic Cysts
Rushton bodies are found in:
Q382Odontogenic Cysts
Aspirated protein > 5 g/dL suggests:
Q383Odontogenic Cysts
Vitality of the associated tooth in radicular cyst is:
Q384Odontogenic Cysts
Partsch I refers to:
Q385Odontogenic Cysts
The most common site is:
Q386Odontogenic Cysts
Recurrence rate after enucleation is:
Q387Odontogenic Cysts
Lining of radicular cyst is:
Q388Odontogenic Cysts
Cholesterol clefts arise from:
Q389Odontogenic Cysts
Which imaging is gold standard for extension?
Q390Odontogenic Cysts
Ki-67 index in radicular cyst is:
Q391Odontogenic Cysts
Which mediator drives bone resorption?
Q392Odontogenic Cysts
A cyst persisting after extraction of the offending tooth is called:
Q393Odontogenic Cysts
Best endodontic outcome is expected when the cyst diameter is:
Q394Odontogenic Cysts
Which is NOT a feature of radicular cyst?
Q395Odontogenic Cysts
Most reliable radiographic differentiator from granuloma is:
Q396Odontogenic Cysts
Malignant transformation of radicular cyst is:
Q397Odontogenic Cysts
Which antibiotic is first-line for an infected radicular cyst?
Q398Odontogenic Cysts
Which cell type predominates in the cyst wall infiltrate?
Q399Soft Tissue Lesions
Ranula arises from:
Q400Soft Tissue Lesions
Plunging ranula extends through:
Q401Soft Tissue Lesions
Definitive treatment for recurrent ranula:
Q402Ulcerative Diseases
Sutton disease refers to:
Q403Salivary Gland Disorders
Autoantibodies most specific for SS:
Q404Salivary Gland Disorders
A minor salivary gland focus consists of ≥:
Q405Salivary Gland Disorders
Increased risk of which malignancy:
Q406Pigmented Lesions
Smoker's melanosis most commonly affects:
Q407Pigmented Lesions
Smoker's melanosis is:
Q408Pigmented Lesions
Histology shows:
Q409Non-odontogenic Cysts
Solitary bone cyst is a:
Q410Non-odontogenic Cysts
Most accepted theory of origin:
Q411Non-odontogenic Cysts
Most common site:
Q412Non-odontogenic Cysts
Peak age of presentation:
Q413Non-odontogenic Cysts
Radiographic hallmark is:
Q414Non-odontogenic Cysts
Adjacent teeth are:
Q415Non-odontogenic Cysts
Cavity contents at exploration are typically:
Q416Non-odontogenic Cysts
Histology shows:
Q417Non-odontogenic Cysts
Treatment of choice:
Q418Non-odontogenic Cysts
Recurrence rate:
Q419Non-odontogenic Cysts
Solitary bone cyst is often associated with:
Q420Non-odontogenic Cysts
Stafne cavity differs from solitary bone cyst because it:
Q421Non-odontogenic Cysts
Pathological fracture is:
Q422Non-odontogenic Cysts
Prognosis is:
Q423Non-odontogenic Cysts
Which is NOT in the differential?
Q424Non-odontogenic Cysts
Root resorption in solitary bone cyst is:
Q425Non-odontogenic Cysts
Cortical expansion is usually:
Q426Non-odontogenic Cysts
Bony infill after curettage takes approximately:
Q427Non-odontogenic Cysts
Sex predilection:
Q428Non-odontogenic Cysts
Which imaging is best for extent?
Q429TMJ Disorders
Most common cause:
Q430TMJ Disorders
Preferred graft in growing child:
Q431TMJ Disorders
Sawhney Type III describes:
Q432Benign Tumors
Location of torus mandibularis:
Q433Benign Tumors
Indication for removal:
Q434Benign Tumors
Multiple osteomas suggest:
Q435Ulcerative Diseases
Traumatic ulcer should heal within:
Q436Ulcerative Diseases
Indication for biopsy:
Q437Ulcerative Diseases
Riga-Fede disease is:
Q438Oral Cancer
Verrucous carcinoma is characterised by:
Q439Oral Cancer
Treatment of choice:
Q440Oral Cancer
Metastatic potential:
Q441White Lesions
White sponge nevus is caused by mutation in:
Q442White Lesions
Mode of inheritance is:
Q443White Lesions
Histological hallmark is:
Q444White Lesions
Malignant potential of WSN is:
Q445White Lesions
Treatment of choice:
Q446Trauma
Zygoma articulates with all EXCEPT:
Q447Trauma
Emergent complication requiring immediate decompression:
Q448Trauma